HomeSelf AssignmentGlomerular Syndromes and Diagnostic Approach — Advanced

Glomerular Syndromes and Diagnostic Approach — Advanced

Board-level postgraduate nephrology self-assessment.

Complete all 10 single-best-answer questions to receive detailed clinical explanations on the results page.

Glomerular Syndromes and Diagnostic Approach

Board-style single-best-answer questions on nephritic and nephrotic presentations, diagnostic testing, biopsy indications, acute and chronic management, complications, and interpretation of histology and serology in glomerular disease.

1 / 10

A 45-year-old man presents with acute onset haematuria, oedema and hypertension. Blood tests show serum C3 low, C4 normal. Which one of the following diagnostic conclusions is most consistent with this complement pattern?

2 / 10

A 29-year-old man presents with rapidly progressive renal failure over 2 weeks and haemoptysis. Serology results return showing very high anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibody titres. Which immediate management step is most appropriate?

3 / 10

A 36-year-old patient presents with nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria >3.5 g/24 h) and normal renal function. Light microscopy is inconclusive. Which is the best initial therapy if electron microscopy confirms diffuse podocyte foot-process effacement consistent with minimal change disease (MCD)?

4 / 10

A 54-year-old woman presents with nephrotic-range proteinuria. Serum anti-PLA2R antibody titre is markedly elevated. Which statement best reflects the clinical implication of a high anti-PLA2R titre in this context?

5 / 10

Which glomerular disease carries the highest relative risk of venous thromboembolism (especially renal vein thrombosis) and should prompt heightened vigilance for thrombotic complication in the nephrotic state?

6 / 10

A patient with biopsy-confirmed C3 glomerulopathy has progressive proteinuria and declining renal function despite supportive care. Which targeted therapeutic option is mechanistically most appropriate for refractory disease driven by complement activation?

7 / 10

A 32-year-old man has lifelong microscopic haematuria and a family history of hearing loss and end-stage kidney disease. Which single investigation is the most appropriate next step to establish the diagnosis before proceeding to renal biopsy?

8 / 10

A 58-year-old patient with long-standing nephrotic syndrome and marked hypoalbuminaemia is oliguric despite high-dose loop diuretics. Which immediate intervention is most appropriate to attempt improved diuresis?

9 / 10

Which of the following is the most appropriate preventive measure to reduce the risk of serious infection in an adult patient with active nephrotic syndrome receiving immunosuppression?

10 / 10

A 48-year-old woman with biopsy-proven IgA nephropathy has persistent proteinuria of 1.6 g/day despite six months of maximally tolerated ACE inhibitor therapy and good blood-pressure control. According to recent guideline-based CKD management principles, which additional therapy should now be considered to reduce proteinuria and slow progression?

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