HomeSelf AssignmentNephrotic Syndrome and Podocytopathies — Advanced

Nephrotic Syndrome and Podocytopathies — Advanced

Board-level postgraduate nephrology self-assessment.

Complete all 10 single-best-answer questions to receive detailed clinical explanations on the results page.

Nephrotic Syndrome and Podocytopathies

Board-level MCQs covering diagnosis, pathophysiology, complications and management decisions in nephrotic syndrome and podocytopathies.

1 / 10

A 55-year-old man presents with new nephrotic-range proteinuria and preserved renal function. Serology is negative for hepatitis B, C and ANA. Which one of the following is the most useful next investigation to distinguish primary (idiopathic) membranous nephropathy from secondary causes?

2 / 10

A 42-year-old woman presents with new-onset nephrotic syndrome (oedema, heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia). She is normotensive and has normal renal function. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step before starting immunosuppressive therapy?

3 / 10

A 63-year-old man with long-standing nephrotic syndrome has tense peripheral oedema and large-volume ascites. He has low serum albumin and has been taking high-dose oral furosemide with minimal response. What is the next best therapeutic manoeuvre to mobilise oedema?

4 / 10

Which single clinical or laboratory feature most strongly increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

5 / 10

An adult patient has biopsy‑proven focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and has failed an adequate trial of high-dose oral corticosteroids (steroid‑resistant). Which one of the following is the next most appropriate investigation before escalating to further immunosuppression?

6 / 10

A 28-year-old woman with biopsy-proven minimal change disease (MCD) has had multiple steroid‑dependent relapses causing significant steroid toxicity. Which steroid‑sparing agent has the strongest contemporary evidence for inducing and maintaining remission while reducing steroid exposure in adults with steroid‑dependent MCD?

7 / 10

Which lipid-lowering strategy is most appropriate for reducing long‑term atherosclerotic cardiovascular risk in an adult patient with persistent nephrotic syndrome?

8 / 10

A 67-year-old man with new nephrotic syndrome has low-level monoclonal gammopathy detected on serum protein electrophoresis. You suspect AL amyloidosis as the cause of nephrotic syndrome. Which initial laboratory panel is the single best choice to evaluate for a monoclonal light chain (AL) process?

9 / 10

A 54-year-old patient with biopsy‑proven anti‑PLA2R‑positive membranous nephropathy has persistent heavy proteinuria despite optimal renin–angiotensin blockade and is at high risk of progressive renal disease. Which immunosuppressive regimen is currently preferred by many guidelines as a first‑line targeted therapy in this scenario?

10 / 10

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to performing a percutaneous renal biopsy in a patient being investigated for nephrotic syndrome?

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