HomeSelf AssignmentNephritic Syndrome and Rapidly Progressive GN — Advanced

Nephritic Syndrome and Rapidly Progressive GN — Advanced

Board-level postgraduate nephrology self-assessment.

Complete all 10 single-best-answer questions to receive detailed clinical explanations on the results page.

Nephritic Syndrome and Rapidly Progressive GN

Board-level MCQs covering diagnosis, pathophysiology, biopsy interpretation, acute and chronic management, complications and guideline-based decision-making in nephritic syndromes and rapidly progressive (crescentic) GN.

1 / 10

A 58-year-old man presents with 2 weeks of dark urine, periorbital oedema and new hypertension. He had a sore throat 3 weeks ago that settled without antibiotics. Serum creatinine has risen from baseline 90 to 240 µmol/L. Urinalysis: haematuria with red cell casts, protein 1.2 g/day. Complement levels: low C3, normal C4. Which diagnosis is most likely?

2 / 10

A 45-year-old man develops rapidly progressive renal impairment over 10 days with serum creatinine rising from 80 to 650 µmol/L. He develops haemoptysis and hypoxia. ANCA and anti-GBM results are pending. Which immediate management step is most appropriate while awaiting serology and biopsy?

3 / 10

Immunofluorescence microscopy of a renal biopsy shows a strong, smooth, linear deposition of IgG along the glomerular basement membrane. Which diagnosis does this pattern most strongly support?

4 / 10

Regarding the role of therapeutic plasma exchange (PLEX) in ANCA‑associated vasculitis with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN), which statement is most correct?

5 / 10

A 32-year-old woman with known systemic lupus erythematosus presents with nephritic syndrome: serum creatinine 220 µmol/L, urine protein 3.2 g/day, active urinary sediment and low C3 and low C4. Renal biopsy most likely to show which of the following features characteristic of diffuse proliferative (class IV) lupus nephritis?

6 / 10

A 70-year-old man with rapidly progressive GN is found to have a serum potassium of 6.8 mmol/L and peaked T waves on ECG. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate treatment to reduce the risk of fatal arrhythmia?

7 / 10

A 60-year-old man with Staphylococcus aureus infective endocarditis develops new haematuria, proteinuria and rising creatinine. Blood cultures remain positive and echocardiography shows vegetations. Which management approach is most appropriate for his glomerulonephritis?

8 / 10

Renal biopsy in rapidly progressive GN demonstrates that most crescents are cellular with minimal interstitial fibrosis and only focal tubular atrophy. Which statement about prognosis and treatment response is most accurate?

9 / 10

A 50-year-old man with PR3‑ANCA positive pauci‑immune rapidly progressive GN achieved remission after induction with rituximab and steroids. For relapse prevention, which maintenance strategy is supported by recent evidence and commonly used in practice, particularly for patients at higher relapse risk?

10 / 10

A 35-year-old woman with crescentic GN presents with severe uraemia (marked fatigue, nausea), refractory pulmonary oedema despite diuretics, and persistent hyperkalaemia despite medical therapy. Which of the following is the clearest indication for initiating urgent renal replacement therapy (dialysis)?

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